Ouch.

David was the father of Solomon, whose mother had been Uriah’s wife,

[matt. 1:6]

Ouch. David’s sin is even recorded in the genealogy intoducing the Messiah!

Why is this included? Why didn’t Matthew just gloss over that? Wouldn’t that make the introduction of the Messiah “cleaner” and more glamorous?

What a blot!

Why is this included? Two thoughts:

  • To demonstrate that God uses sinners (cf. Rahab the prostitute in the previous verse.)
  • Though the Messiah will come from David’s line (cf. 2Sam. 7), David is not the Messiah. We are left longing for a more complete fulfillment.

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